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Contra Stavrinides
by Frank Nelte
APPENDIX #5: "THE GOD OF OUR FATHERS"
The question has been raised: "IF Jesus Christ was the God of the Old Testament, did He resurrect Himself, since Acts 5:30 says ...
The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. (Acts 5:30)
Let's examine this question more closely.
These verses clearly refer to Jesus Christ, the One who dealt with Israel throughout their history.
Here the expression "the God of our fathers" refers very pointedly to GOD THE FATHER! A statement from Christ Himself in this regard is John 17:5 ...
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. (John 17:5)
THE GOD OF OUR FATHERS RAISED UP JESUS, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree. (Acts 5:30)
This verse is also a clear reference to God the Father.
When Moses saw [it], he wondered at the sight: and as he drew near to behold [it], THE VOICE OF THE LORD came unto him, (Acts 7:31)
Notice that here in this verse Stephen is talking about the One who spoke to Moses in Exodus 3:13-15.
[Saying], I [am] THE GOD OF THY FATHERS, the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob. Then Moses trembled, and durst not behold. (Acts 7:32)
In this verse it is a reference to Jesus Christ.
And he said, THE GOD OF OUR FATHERS hath chosen thee, that thou shouldest know his will, and SEE THAT JUST ONE, and shouldest hear the voice of his mouth. (Acts 22:14)
Here Paul is recounting the time when Ananias spoke to him in Acts 9:17-18. It seems that Ananias was here referring to God the Father.
But this I confess unto thee, that after the way which they call heresy, SO WORSHIP I THE GOD OF MY FATHERS, believing all things which are written in the law and in the prophets: (Acts 24:14)
The verb "worship" here is translated from "latreuo", which comes from "latron", and it really means "whom I serve". The exact same form of this verb is translated "whom I serve" in Acts 27:23; Romans 1:9 and IITimothy 1:3. So Paul claimed to SERVE the God of his fathers.
In this context Paul was defending himself before the governor Felix and the One Paul served and worshipped was God the Father.145.
How can the same expression sometimes refer to God the Father and at other times to Jesus Christ? Let's understand ...
Just think for a moment ... "the God of our fathers" is just another way of saying "the God of Abraham and of Isaac and of Jacob" ... these are the "fathers" that are meant; not the generations that time and again ended up in idolatry. Check this out for yourself!
Next, we are told that Abraham actually "looked for" the New Jerusalem ...
For HE LOOKED FOR A CITY which hath foundations, whose builder and maker [is] God. (Hebrews 11:10)
Now IF Abraham understood about the New Jerusalem, as Paul clearly implies in this verse, then that had to be by divine revelation! And if it was by divine revelation, then there is no way that he would have been given a wrong picture of a New Jerusalem WITHOUT GOD THE FATHER IN IT and with only Jesus Christ there!! Just think this through slowly and carefully.
The New Jerusalem without God the Father in it is meaningless! The whole point of the New Jerusalem is that that is where GOD THE FATHER is going to live ...
And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God [is] with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, [and be] their God. (Revelation 21:3)
Hebrews 11:10 makes very clear that Abraham, the first and foremost of "the fathers", simply MUST have known about the existence of God the Father. And therefore God the Father also MUST have been the God of Abraham ... even though Jesus Christ was the One who continued to deal directly with Abraham and so Christ too was the God of Abraham.
Christ was "the Spokesman" for the Father, but never in any way did He take anything away from the Father's glory and power and position and authority!
A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. (Psalms 110:1)
David referred to the One as "YHVH" and to the other as "ADON". Which of these two did David worship? ... Only "ADON", whom he refers to as "MY Lord"? And not "YHVH"? That is ridiculous! Psalm 110:1 shows that David understood that God the Father is over Jesus Christ and David freely acknowledged this in this Psalm. So once again we see: God the Father was the God of David (in this case, instead of Abraham) and Jesus Christ was also the God of David. (Psalm 110:1 is thoroughly explained in PART XII, starting on page 74.)
I saw in the night visions, and, behold, [one] like THE SON OF MAN CAME with the clouds of heaven, and came TO THE ANCIENT OF DAYS, and they brought him near before him. (Daniel 7:13)
This is a vision about Jesus Christ appearing before God the Father. Daniel MUST have realized that there are TWO members in God's Family at this time... just like Abraham and like David must have understood. Would Daniel have worshipped only the One God (Jesus Christ) and ignored the Other (God the Father)? Obviously not!
We have now looked at examples of God's servants spanning about 1500 years of God's dealings with O.T. Israel (i.e. From Abraham via David to Daniel), where these servants had a knowledge of TWO separate God-Beings. The fact that Israel as a whole was unaware of the Father's existence is unimportant here. The Bible shows that A FEW faithful servants of God, including Abraham, the chief of the "fathers', knew of the Father's existence. So the Father was also "their" God.
The term "YHWH" in the O.T. is mostly used to refer to Jesus Christ ... but occasionally it is used to refer to God the Father (e.g. Psalm 110:1). And why shouldn't it be used for both Beings? After all, they are both "Eternal".
The term "Father" is almost always used to refer to God the Father; yet in Isaiah 9:6 it is Jesus Christ who is called "the everlasting FATHER".
The term "God" in the New Testament (Greek "THEOS") is used predominantly to refer to God the Father and the term "Lord" (Greek "KURIOS") is used to refer to Jesus Christ. This is because where the Hebrew has several different words for "God" (e.g. Elohim, YHWH, Adon, El, Adonai, etc.), the Greek has only one word "THEOS". Whereas the O.T. has only a very, very few references to the TWO different Beings in the Godhead, such references are extremely numerous and common in the N.T.. Thus the writers of the N.T. (under inspiration!) very often simply used the term "THEOS" to refer to the One supreme member of the Godhead, God the Father; and then they used the term "Lord" (i.e. KURIOS) to refer to the second member of the Godhead, Jesus Christ.
They also were very meticulous to focus attention on the Father's position of authority. After all, Christ had said that human beings can have direct access to the Father. And so it should not be surprising that they freely gave credit where credit is due ... by also using the term "the God of our fathers" for God the Father Himself. It is always THE CONTEXT of a scripture that makes clear which member of the God-Family is meant by this term.